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exam2pass exam tips directory 2020：

1. Latest Esri EADA105 Exam Practice Tips
2. Latest EXIN DEVOPSF Exam Practice Tips
3. Latest GAQM PDPF Exam Practice Tips
4. Latest GRE GRE-SECTION-1 Exam Practice Tips
5. Latest Marketo MCE Exam Practice Tips
6. Latest Isaca CRISC Exam Practice Tips
7. Latest exam2pass Discount code 2020

Latest Esri EADA105 Practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1

An analyst needs to create, edit, and analyze data for sub-surface oil exploration. The dataset is in a projected
coordinate system with geometry and attribute values that represent elevation. The data should maintain the origin of
height, the properties of depth, shape, area, distance, and direction.
What property does the analyst need to ensure is set for multi-dimensional analysis?
A. Spatial Index
B. Feature Extent
C. Cartographic Offset
D. Vertical Coordinate System

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://web.pdx.edu/~emch/manuals/Using_ArcMap.pdf (117)

QUESTION 2

A map series is created for habitat types over a large diverse study area. The legend shows all possible habitat types
and is causing confusion as to which habitat types are on the specific map page. How can the GIS analyst modify the
map series to update the legend for the current display?
A. Add dynamic text attributes from the index layer to the layout
B. Adjust legend properties to only show features visible in the map extent
C. Convert legend to graphics and remove habitats NOT present on the page
D. Intersect index grid layer with habitat types and add a table to layout

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://desktop.arcgis.com/en/arcmap/10.3/map/page-layouts/working-with-legends.htm

QUESTION 3

How can an ArcGIS Pro user display 2D polygons with height in 3D?
A. Use a single attribute or build an expression to extrude the polygons
B. Use the z-mode in the Edit tab to add z-values to the polygons
C. Add the features as a preset layer to a scene to display in 3D
D. Add the features to a 2D map and convert the map to a 3D scene

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://communityhub.esriuk.com/geoxchange/2016/11/11/make-your-2d-data-look-3d-with- arcgis-pro

QUESTION 4

A GIS analyst needs to implement the requirements of a workflow that includes field apps accessing feature services for
data collection. The design calls for the analyst to build several feature templates that will be used by the feature
services. Which item must be included in the feature template?
A. Database connection file
B. Group and query layers
C. Layer, Default tool, Attributes
D. Layers and tables based on views

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

An ArcGIS Desktop user must find out which data type (geodatabase feature class, shapefile, map, or feature service) is
referenced by a layer. How should the user achieve this task?
A. Select the Layer > Data tab
B. Open the layer properties > General tab
C. Open the layer properties > Source tab
D. Right-click the layer > Data > Repair Data Sources

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://community.esri.com/ideas/3199

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Latest EXIN DEVOPSF Practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1

Is it true that when implementing the deployment pipeline, extensive automation is required to consider it a DevOps
practice?
A. No, because a deployment pipeline is not the same as automation. Automation is the underlying ideology
B. No, because the deployment pipeline is just used to order work, automation does not apply
C. Yes, because if the extensive automaton is not used, technical debt will start accumulating
D. Yes, because the deployment pipeline is needed for continuous automation activities
E. Yes, because the deployment pipeline is the technology that is used to automate work

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.getzephyr.com/insights/steps-creating-effective-devops-focused-deployment-pipeline

QUESTION 2

A company is not yet using DevOps practices. The team notices a problematic accumulation of technical debt. One of
the team members suggests implementing DevOps practices to solve this problem. Which DevOps practices support
reducing technical debt?
A. Constant refactoring and eliminating previous bottlenecks
B. Continuous delivery and promoting pair programming
C. Continuous feedback and implementing a deployment pipeline

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

When value stream mapping, which metric is essential to measure for each step?
A. Cost of delay
B. Delay divided by duration
C. Key group comparison
D. Percentage complete and accurate
E. Work-in-Progress (WIP)

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4

DevOps practices incorporate the value stream concept from Lean Production. What is a value stream?
A. The amount of products that are delivered within a timeframe
B. The sequence of releases that deliver a working product
C. The series of actions performed to fulfill any type of request

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5

What is a benefit of the way the Definition of Done is defined in DevOps?
A. The team focuses less on the “what” and more on “when”
B. The team focuses less on the “what and more” on “where”
C. The team focuses less on the “what” and more on “who”
D. The team focuses less on the “what” and more on “why”

Correct Answer: A

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Latest EXIN PDPF Practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1

A processor is instructed to report on customers who bought a product both last month and at least once in the three
months before that. Unfortunately, the processor makes a mistake and uses personal data collected by another
controller for
a different purpose.
The mistake is found before the report is created, and nobody has access to personal data he or she should not have
had access to.
How should the processor act on this situation and what should the controller do, if anything?
A. The processor must notify the controller and the controller must notify the Data Protection Authority of a data breach.
B. The processor must notify the controller of a data breach. The controller must assess the possible risk to the data
subjects.
C. The processor must notify the Data Protection Authority of a data breach. The controller must execute a PIA to
assess the risk to data subjects.
D. The processor must restart processing using the right data. There is no need for the controller to act.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

Under what EU legislation is data transfer between the EEA and the U.S.A. allowed?
A. An adequacy decision based on the Privacy Shield program
B. An adequacy decision by reason of US domestic legislation
C. The Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership (TTIP)
D. The U.S.A.\’s commitment to join the European Economic Area

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://ec.europa.eu/info/law/law-topic/data-protection/data-transfers-outside-eu_en

QUESTION 3

The Control Authority may impose fines on organizations that are not meeting the mandatory requirements of the
General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR).
A. False
B. True

Correct Answer: B

Article 83 of GDPR Infringements of the following provisions shall, in accordance with paragraph 2, be subject to administrative fines up
to 20 000 000 EUR, or in the case of an undertaking, up to 4 % of the total worldwide annual turnover of the preceding
financial year, whichever is higher…
Article 51 of GDPR Each supervisory authority shall contribute to the consistent application of this Regulation throughout the Union.

QUESTION 4

What is the most important difference between the 95/46/EC and the GDPR?
A. 95/46/EC applies as law in all EEA member states while the GDPR is guidance.
B. 95/46/EC applies to the processing of data on EEA residents worldwide and the GDPR does not.
C. The GDPR applies as law in all EEA member states while 95/46/EC is guidance.
D. The GDPR applies to persons and organizations which process personal data within EEA member states. The scope
of 95/46/EC is more restricted in this aspect.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which data subject right is explicitly defined by the GDPR?
A. A copy of personal data must be provided in the format requested by the data subject.
B. Personal data must always be erased if the data subject requests this.
C. Access to personal data must be provided free of charge for the data subject.
D. Personal data must always be changed at the request of the data subject.

Correct Answer: C

A copy of personal data must be provided in the format requested by the data subject. Incorrect. It must be provided in a
structured, commonly used, and machine-readable format, but not necessarily in any format the data subject specifies.
Access to personal data must be provided free of charge for the data subject. Correct. Data subjects have a right to a
copy of their data free of charge. However, only the first copy has to be free. (Literature: A, Chapter 4)
Personal data must always be changed at the request of the data subject. Incorrect. Only erroneous data has to be
rectified.
Personal data must always be erased if the data subject requests this. Incorrect. The right to erasure has several
exceptions to this, for instance, if the data are needed for the establishment, exercise, or defense of legal claims.

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Latest GRE GRE-SECTION-1 Practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1

One of the most intriguing stories of the Russian Revolution concerns the identity of Anastasia, the youngest daughter
of Czar Nicholas II. During his reign over Russia, the Czar had planned to revoke many of the harsh laws established by
previous czars. Some workers and peasants, however, clamored for more rapid social reform. In 1918 a group of these
people, known as Bolsheviks, overthrew the government. On July 17 or 18, they murdered the Czar and what was
thought to be his entire family.
Although witnesses vouched that all the members of the Czar\’s family had been executed, there were rumors
suggesting that Anastasia had survived. Over the years, a number of women claimed to be Grand Duchess Anastasia.
Perhaps the best? the known claimant was Anastasia Tchaikovsky, who was also known as Anna Anderson.
In 1920, eighteen months after the Czar\’s execution, this terrified young woman was rescued from drowning in a Berlin
river. She spent two years in a hospital, where she attempted to reclaim her health and shattered mind. The doctors and
nurses thought that she resembled Anastasia and questioned her about her background. She disclaimed any
connection with the Czar\’s family.
Eight years later, though, she claimed that she was Anastasia. She said that she had been rescued by two Russian
soldiers after the Czar and the rest of her family had been killed. Two brothers named Tchaikovsky had carried her into
Romania. She had married one of the brothers, who had taken her to Berlin and left her there, penniless and without a
vocation. Unable to invoke the aid of her mother\’s family in Germany, she had tried to drown herself.
During the next few years, scores of the Czar\’s relatives, ex-servants, and acquaintances interviewed her. Many of
these people said that her looks and mannerisms were evocative of the Anastasia that they had known. Her
grandmother and other relatives denied that she was the real Anastasia, however.
Tired of being accused of fraud, Anastasia immigrated to the United States in 1928 and took the name Anna Anderson.
She still wished to prove that she was Anastasia, though, and returned to Germany in 1933 to bring suit against her
mother\’s family. There she declaimed to the court, asserting that she was indeed Anastasia and deserved her
inheritance.
In 1957, the court decided that it could neither confirm nor deny Anastasia\’s identity. Although we will probably never
know whether this woman was the Grand Duchess Anastasia, her search to establish her identity has been the subject
of numerous books, plays, and movies.
In court, she _ maintaining that she was Anastasia and deserved her inheritance.
A. finally appeared
B. spoke forcefully
C. testified
D. gave evidence
E. answer not stated

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

DRIP: GUSH
A. cry: laugh
B. curl: roll
C. stream: tributary
D. dent: destroy
E. bend: angle

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

Each passage in this group is followed by questions based on its content. After reading a passage, choose the best
answer to each question. Answer all the questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that
passage.
It might be surprising to discover that Europe\’s first republic pre-dated the turn of the 11th century, long before Europe
would see the rise of another such system. Around 870 AD, settlers from Norway began arriving in Iceland, and they
eventually established a government system that gave all free men on the island a voice in legislative and judicial
affairs. In approximately 930 AD, the leaders of Iceland created the Althing, considered the oldest parliament in the
world. This system, and Iceland\’s identity as a republic, remained in place until 1262 when the decision of the Althing
agreed to the Old Covenant and placed Iceland under the authority of the king of Norway. Iceland would not become a
self-governing republic again until 1944 when the people of Iceland voted to end their political relationship with the
kingdom of Denmark.
Does the passage indicate which of the following about the development of republics in Europe?
A. The republic that developed in Iceland lacked the stability it needed to survive.
B. It would be many years before another republic would develop in Europe.
C. The republic in Iceland ultimately was unable to withstand subjugation by another nation.
D. The modern republics in Europe have far more sophistication than Iceland\’s early republic.
E. Monarchy was a far more common system of government for most of Europe\’s history.

Correct Answer: B

In the first sentence, the author notes the following: “It might be surprising to discover that Europe\’s first republic predated the turn of the 11th century, long before Europe would see the rise of another such system.” This statement
clearly indicates that Iceland\’s republic came well before another in Europe, so indeed it was “many years” before
another republic emerged in Europe. The author of the passage mentions a monarchy in Norway and Denmark, but this
mention alone is not enough to assume that monarchy was the more common system based only on the information in
the passage. The information in “The republic in Iceland ultimately was unable to withstand…” and “The republic that
developed in Iceland lacked the stability it needed…” focuses solely on the republic in Iceland, and this counters the
question with its focus on the development of republics in Europe. Additionally, the author mentions that Iceland is
currently a republic, but this mention alone is not enough to comment on modern republics in Europe or on the level of
“sophistication” that defines them.

QUESTION 4

OSSIFIED :
A. wizened
B. grizzled
C. excavated
D. deconstructed
E. decimated

Correct Answer: A

OSSIFIED means “turned to bone, or fossilized”; when wood, for example, becomes fossilized, it hardens as a bone.
Wizened means “shriveled or wrinkled, as with age” which describes the opposite condition.

QUESTION 5

DISPENSARY: REAPER
A. chisel: mortar
B. thermometer: aspirin
C. dye: seal
D. whip: harness
E. anesthetic: toxin

Correct Answer: A

This is an “opposing function” analogy. A DISPENSARY is a distribution center for medicines, and a REAPER is a
farming machine that cuts and gathers crops. Since a dispensary distributes but a reaper gathers, they serve opposing
functions. A chisel is used to break apart material such as stone; mortar is used to bond stones or bricks; hence, they
also serve opposing functions. Moreover, in both pairs, the relationship involves disbursing versus joining, further
strengthening the analogy

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Latest Marketo MCE Practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1

A marketer has created several tokens to use in an initiative to send out a survey to customers: In which two places
should token have been created to be inherited in the 2017 Customer Survey Reminder 2 program? (Choose two.)

A. In the 2017 Customer Survey Reminder 2 Program
B. In the 2017 Customer Survey Reminder Program
C. In the 2017 Customer Survey Program
D. In the 2017-Customer Survey Campaign Folder
E. In the Admin Area
F. In the Reports Folder

Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 2

A service level agreement (SLA) between sales and marketing requires that if sales mark a lead as Unqualified, an
Unqualified Reason must be provided. The marketing team wants to nurture those leads. What should be added as a
flow step in a Smart Campaign to accomplish this?
A. Add to SFDC Campaign
B. Add to Engagement Program
C. Add to Nurture Stream
D. Add to Trash

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A lead\’s score changes to 100, and the marketing manager wants two actions to occur immediately:
Send an email to the lead owner Create an Interesting Moment What should be done to ensure this?

A. Set up a Smart Campaign with a Score is Changed\\' trigger in the Smart List, andSend Alert\’ and Interesting Moment\\' Steps in the Flow

B. Set up a Smart Campaign with aScore was Changed\’ filter in the Smart List, and Send Alert\\' andInteresting
Moment\’ Steps in the Flow

C. Set up a Smart Campaign with a Score is Changed\\' trigger in the Smart List, andSend Email\’ and Interesting Moment\\' Steps in the Flow

D. Set up a Smart Campaign with aThe score was Changed\’ filter in the Smart List, and Send Email\\' andInteresting
Moment\’ Steps in the Flow

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.marketo.com/display/public/DOCS/Send+Alert

QUESTION 4

In which initiatives can a marketer use the Recipient Time Zone feature? (Choose two.)
A. When setting the stream cadence in an engagement program stream that contains email assets and nested
programs
B. When sending a newsletter email with an email program
C. When sending an invitation email with a batch smart campaign in an event program
D. When setting the stream cadence in an engagement program stream that contains only email assets
E. When sending a confirmation email with a trigger smart campaign in a default program

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://nation.marketo.com/t5/Certification-Study-Group/Choosing-Program-Types-for-Email-and-NurturingInitiatives/gpm-p/241728

QUESTION 5

What form of field type can be used to capture URL parameters?
A. Input Masking Fields
B. Hidden Form Fields
C. Dynamic Form Fields
D. Anonymous Form Fields

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.marketo.com/display/public/DOCS/Set+a+Hidden+Form+Field+Value

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Latest Isaca CRISC Practice exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1

Wendy has identified a risk event in her project that has an impact of $75,000 and a 60 percent chance of happening.
Through research, her project team learns that the risk impact can actually be reduced to just $15,000 with only a ten
percent chance of occurring. The proposed solution will cost $25,000. Wendy agrees to the $25,000 solution. What type
of risk response is this?
A. Mitigation
B. Avoidance
C. Transference
D. Enhancing

Correct Answer: A

Risk mitigation implies a reduction in the probability and/or impact of an adverse risk event to be within acceptable
threshold limits. Taking early actions to reduce the probability and/or impact of a risk occurring on the project is often
more effective than trying to repair the damage after the risk has occurred.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Avoidance changes the project plan to avoid the risk altogether.
C: Transference requires shifting some or all of the negative impacts of a threat, along with the ownership of the
response, to a third party. Transferring the risk simply gives another party the responsibility for its management-it does
not eliminate it.
Transferring the liability for risk is most effective in dealing with financial risk exposure. Risk transference nearly
always involves payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.
D: Enhancing is actually a positive risk response. This strategy is used to increase the probability and/or the positive
impact of an opportunity. Identifying and maximizing the key drivers of these positive-impact risks may increase the
probability of their occurrence.

QUESTION 2

Which of the following is a performance measure that is used to evaluate the efficiency of an investment or to compare
the efficiency of a number of different investments?
A. Return On Security Investment
B. Total Cost of Ownership
C. Return On Investment
D. Redundant Array of Inexpensive Disks

Correct Answer: C

Return On Investment (ROI) is a performance measure used to evaluate the efficiency of an investment or to compare
the efficiency of a number of different investments. To calculate ROI, the benefit (return) of an investment is divided by the
cost of the investment; the result is expressed as a percentage or a ratio.
The return on investment formula:
ROI = (Gain from investment – Cost of investment) / Cost of investment
In the above formula “gains from investment”, refers to the proceeds obtained from selling the investment of interest.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: These options are not related to the measurement of efficiency of an investment.
D: RAID is described as a redundant array of inexpensive disks. It is a technology that allows computer users to achieve
high levels of storage reliability from low-cost and less reliable PC-class disk-drive components, via the technique of
arranging the devices into arrays for redundancy.

QUESTION 3

You are working in Bluewell Inc. which makes advertisement Websites. Someone had made unauthorized changes to
your Website. Which of the following terms refers to this type of loss?
A. Loss of confidentiality
B. Loss of integrity
C. Loss of availability
D. Loss of revenue

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Loss of integrity refers to the following types of losses: An e-mail message is modified in transit A virus infects a file
Someone makes unauthorized changes to a Web site
Incorrect Answers:
A: Someone sees a password or a company\’s secret formula, this is referred to as loss of confidentiality.
C: An e-mail server is down and no one has e-mail access, or a file server is down so data files aren\’t available come
under the loss of availability.
D: This refers to the events which would eventually cause loss of revenue.

QUESTION 4

Which of the following roles is BEST suited to help a risk practitioner understand the impact of IT-related events on
business objectives?
A. Process owners
B. IT management
C. Senior management
D. Internal audit

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5

Which of the following activities would BEST contribute to promoting an organization-wide risk-aware culture?
A. Communicating components of risk and their acceptable levels
B. Performing a benchmark analysis and evaluating gaps
C. Participating in peer reviews and implementing best practices
D. Conducting risk assessments and implementing controls

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://m.isaca.org/Certification/CRISC-Certified-in-Risk-and-Information-SystemsControl/Documents/CRISC-Additional-Verification-Form-2015-Later-frm_Eng_0818.pdf

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